Question from Prato on Jan 26 at 10:51 AM Hi all,
My client is a multinational manufacturer group with several companies belonging to the same group (located in several countries). In case a company produce and sell products whose brand belongs to another company of the group, the selling company has to pay the royalties (brand owner margin) to the brand owner company.
Example:
1. Company "A" = Brand Owner
2. Company "B" = Selling Company
3. Final Customer "C"
IF "B" produce and sell to "C" (with directly delivery from "B") products whose brand belong to A ? "B" has to pay the royalties to "A".
For fiscal reasons my client would like to avoid to pay the royalties, to the brand owner company, after having sold the products (usually the royalties are calculated and paid once the products have been sold) but, contextually to the sales process, would like to simulate an intercompany flow from the brand owner company to the selling company even if the brand owner company is not really involved in the sales process.
My question is; did you ever implement a solution covering the requirement above described? In case any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.
Best Regards,
Francesco
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